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QUESTION 66
According to the diagram, a PPPoE session is initiated by the user from the PC using the username johndoe@isp1.com. This PPPoE session ultimately terminates on the ISP router, using domain based tunneling on 6400. What is the correct sequence of events which occur during user authentication?
A. The 6400 will query the PC to get the domain name. The 6400 will issue a PPP authentication challenge to which the PC will respond using the username johndoe@isp1.com. Once the tunnel is established, the ISP router will issue a challenge to the user and will authenticate the response.
B. The 6400 will issue a PPP authentication challenge to which the PC will respond using the username johndoe@isp1.com. The 6400 will authenticate the user. It will also use the domain name to find out the tunnel endpoint. The tunnel is established and user traffic will now be allowed to flow without any further authentication.
C. The 6400 will issue a PPP authentication challenge to which the PC will respond using the username johndoe@isp1.com. The 6400 will use the domain name isp1.com to find out the tunnel endpoint. It will forward the authentication information to the ISP router which will authenticate the user.
D. The 6400 will use the PVC number to decide the tunnel endpoint. Once the tunnel is established, the ISP router will issue a challenge to the user and will authenticate the response.
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
An architecture that utilizes PPPoA deals with IP address allocation by what type of negotiation?
A. DHCP
B. LDAP
C. IPCP
D. RADIUS
E. NIS
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Virtual path identifier (VPI) and virtual channel identifier (VCI) values on the NRP-2 must share ___bits. By default, VPI values are limited to ___ bits (0-15), and VCI values are limited to ___ bits (0-1023). A Network Administrator can change the VPI and VCI ranges, but together the VPI and VCI values cannot exceed ___ bits. Which numbers below, correctly fill in the blanks?
A. 16, 6, 10, 16
B. 18, 4, 12, 16
C. 18, 4, 8, 12
D. 14, 4, 10, 14
E. 14, 5, 9, 14
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
What statement regarding Service Selection Gateway is INCORRECT?
A. For Proxy Service, the SSG will proxy the Access-Request to the remote AAA server. Upon receiving an Access-Accept from the remote RADIUS server, the NRP-SSG responds to the subscriber with the Access-Accept.
B. Transparent passthrough service allows unauthenticated subscriber traffic to be routed through the NRP-SSG in either direction.
C. For Proxy service, the SSG can perform NAT between the address assigned by the remote server and the subscriber’s real IP address.
D. For non-PPP users, such as those in bridged networks, if the user disconnects from a service without logging off, the connection will remain open and the user can reaccess the service without going through logon procedure as long as the session has not timed out.
E. The PPP Termination Aggregation (PTA) service can be used only in dialup environments and with PPPoE in DSL environments. It cannot be used with PPPoA.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 70
A Network Administrator is unable to configure a PVC with the value of 8/49. He looks at the running config and notices the following entry for the interface he is working with.
What is the likely cause of the problem?interface ATM0/0/0no ip addressatm vc-per-vp 2048no atm ilmi-keepalive
A. ILMI has timed out without keepalives.
B. The config is fine; the NSP must be the source of the problem.
C. An IP address is required to turn up PVCs.
D. The interface is shutdown.
E. Too many bits have been assigned to the VCs reducing the possible values of the VP.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 71
What does the Service Selection Gateway (SSG) feature on the NRP support to authenticate and authorize users?
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. Kerberos
D. MS-CHAP
E. Radius and Tacacs+
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 72
What is the purpose of the following command? virtual-template {template-number\}pre-clone {number\}
A. Used in a PPPoA environment, it will improve the memory utilization by decreasing the number of dynamic interfaces created.
B. Used in either a PPPoA or PPPoE environment, it will decrease the time needed to boot the NRP by creating needed access interfaces before they are needed.
C. Used in a PPPoE environment, it will increase the time needed for a user to connect to the NRP by allocating access interfaces at boot time.
D. Used in a PPPoE environment, it will pre-create a defined number of dynamic access interfaces to reduce the load on the NRP during times of peak user logins.
E. Used in either a PPPoA or PPPoE environment, it will increase the initial load on the NRP by pre-creating a defined number of dynamic access interfaces.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 73
Inferface FastEthernet 0/0/0ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0!interface ATM 0/0/0.30 multipointpvc 1/43encapsulation aal5ciscoppp Virtual-Template 2!!interface Virtual-Template 2ip unnumbered FastEthernet 0/0/0no peer default ip addressppp authentication pap chapppp ipcp mask 255.255.255.224!Refer to the configuration above. A customer connected to PVC 1/43 boots their CPE (PPPoA encapsulation). The Radius server is properly configured and recognizes the customer. The Radius server assigns the Framed-IP-netmask 192.168.10.1/29. What information does the CPE receive from the NRP via PPP IPCP negotiation?
A. 192.168.10.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.248
B. 192.168.10.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.224
C. 192.168.1.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.224
D. 192.168.1.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.248
E. 192.168.1.1 IP Address, subnet mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 74
When a subscriber is configured for PPPoE service, the DSL modem is usually configured as:
A. A basic router (RFC 1483 routing)
B. A basic bridge (RFC 1483 bridging)
C. A router configured for PPPoA session termination
D. A router configured for PPPoE session origination
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 75
In BGP, why should a Route Reflector be used?
A. To overcome issues of split-horizon within BGP
B. To reduce the number of External BGP peers by allowing updates to reflect without the need to be fully meshed
C. To allow the router to reflect updates from one Internal BGP speaker to another without the need to be fully meshed
D. To divide Autonomous Systems into mini-Autonomous Systems, allowing the reduction in the number of peers
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 76
BGP can implement a policy of ‘Route Dampening’ to control route instability. What statement about route dampening is NOT correct?
A. A numeric penalty is applied to a route each time it flaps.
B. The penalty is exponentially decayed according to parameters, such as half-life-time.
C. The history of unstable routes is forwarded back to the sender to control future updates.
D. The route is eventually suppressed based on a configurable ‘suppress limit’.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 77
Which are the correct ways to release IBGP from the condition that all IBGP neighbors need to be fully meshed? (multiple answer)
A. Configure local preference
B. Configure route reflectors
C. Configure IBGP neighbors several hops away
D. Configure confederations
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 78
According to the diagram, what attribute is initiated by AS200 (IBGP) to give preference to the path A or D traffic will take when going from AS200 to AS100? What attribute is initiated by AS200 (EBGP) to give preference to the path B or C traffic will take when going from AS100 to AS200?
A. MED; Origin
B. MED; Local Preference
C. Community; Origin
D. Local Preference; MED
E. Origin; Community
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 79
Routers E and F are running HSRP (Hot Standby Router Protocol). Router E has a higher priority, and both routers have standby preempt configured. Since Router E is normally the active router, what IP address should Host G use for its default gateway?
A. 10.1.3.1
B. Router E’s IP address, since it is normally active; Router F will take over Router E’s address if it fails.
C. Router F’s IP address; the active router will take over the standby router’s IP address until it fails
D. The virtual address configured when enabling HSRP
E. The virtual address assigned by HSRP; this address is dependent on the group number configured
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 80
What statement is correct concerning the shown configuration?
A. Two RIP updates will be sent out on Ethernet 0: one broadcast to 255.255.255.255 and one unicast to
10.0.0.2.
B. Only one RIP update will be sent out on Ethernet 0 to the broadcast address 255.255.255.255, but no RIP updates will be received on Ethernet 0.
C. Two RIP updates will be sent out on Ethernet 0, one broadcast to 10.255.255.255 and one unicast to
10.0.0.2.
D. Only one RIP update will be sent out on Ethernet 0 to the unicast address 10.0.0.2.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 81
A DSL subscriber says that his DSL modem is trained at the subscribed rates, 1024 kbps downstream and 256 kbps upstream, but he has no access to the internet. The internet service was working until today. The modem remains trained – it is not dropping train or frequently retraining. Manually retraining the modem does not correct the problem. The customer can ping from his PC to the Ethernet interface on the DSL modem, but not addresses “in the network”. Initial troubleshooting shows that the DSL modem can ping the subscriber’s PC, but no addresses in the network. What could cause this problem?
A. A telephone is connected to the DSL line with no microfilter or splitter installed. The phone is “loading” the line and disrupting DSL service.
B. The subscriber powered-down the DSL modem, and when it was powered-up it defaulted to G.Lite mode (G.992.2). The port in the DSLAM is full-rate DMT (G.992.1).
C. The DSL port in the DSLAM was left in a “shutdown” state by mistake following DSLAM maintenance.
D. There is a problem with the subscriber’s ATM PVC between the DSLAM and ATM switch. An incorrect VCI was assigned between the DSLAM and ATM switch shortly after midnight, during the service provider’s network rearrangements.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 82
Which DSL modulation types allows line sharing (DSL and POTS voice on the same line)?
A. G.SHDSL, IDSL, and DMT
B. CAP and DMT
C. DMT and G.SHDSL
D. IDSL and SDSL
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 83
What is not a valid service type between an 827 and a 6400?
A. PPPoA
B. HDLC
C. PPPoE
D. L2TP
E. RFC1483
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 84
What ADSL DMT line rate requires (occupies) the most bandwidth on a telephone line?
A. 8 mbps downstream, 800 kbps upstream on 1 kft (300 meters) of cable.
B. 8 mbps downstream, 800 kbps upstream on 9 kft (2.75 km) of cable.
C. 1 mbps downstream, 256 kbps upstream on 1 kft (300 meters) of cable.
D. 512 kbps downstream, 128 kbps upstream on 17 kft (5.2 km) of cable.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 85
In DMT DSL transmission systems, what is the effect of turning off half of the available downstream carriers (tones)?
A. The downstream DSL bandwidth is reduced.
B. The downstream line rate and throughput remains unchanged, but FEC efficiency is reduced.
C. The upstream DSL bandwidth can be increased, since more carriers become available for upstream traffic.
D. Downstream RS error correction effectiveness is reduced.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 86
What is true concerning interleaved versus fastpath mode in DMT DSL service?
A. Fastpath mode allows higher DSL rates.
B. Interleaved mode allocates traffic to more than one ATM PVC.
C. Interleaved mode allows greater forward error correction (FEC).
D. Fastpath mode gives data precedence over voice traffic.
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87
The major difference between DMT and CAP is:
A. CAP uses a single center frequency; DMT is multiple-carrier.
B. DMT is single-carrier; CAP is multiple-carrier.
C. CAP is used in IDSL; DMT is used in ADSL.
D. DMT is used in VDSL; CAP is used in ADSL.
E. CAP is used in ADSL, DMT is used in SDSL.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 88
In ADSL DMT systems, the highest downstream transmit power occurs at what rate/reach combinations?
A. 384 kbps at 17 kft (5.1 km)
B. 8 mbps at 1 kft (305 meters)
C. 1 mbps at 9 kft (2.75 km)
D. 8 mbps at 9 kft (2.75 km)
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 89
What is true concerning fastpath versus interleaved mode in DMT DSL service?
A. Fastpath mode provides lower latency (delay) than interleaved mode.
B. Fastpath mode allows higher DSL trained rates.
C. Fastpath mode allows higher effective throughput on noisy transmission lines.
D. Interleaved mode ensures that all provisioned ATM PVCs on a DSL line are given equal bandwidth.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 90
A DSLAM is using Reed-Solomon forward error correction on a DMT DSL line. The DSL service is using TCP/IP over ATM over DSL. A high number of upstream RS uncorrected errors are occurring on the DSL line, as reported by the DSLAM in the following status message:DSL Statistics:Init Events: 2Transmitted Superframes: near end: 93681573 far end: 0Received Superframes: near end: 93516422 far end: 0Corrected Superframes: near end: 142631 far end: 31571Uncorrected Superframes: near end: 191 far end: 1LOS Events: near end: 0 far end: 0LOF/RFI Events: near end: 0 far end: 0ES Events: near end: 5 far end: 1What is the result of the uncorrected errors?
A. The DSL frames will be continuously retransmitted by the DSL transceivers until an error-free frame is received.
B. If errors on the DSL line can not be corrected by the RS algorithm, the line will be automatically taken out of service.
C. The errored data resulting from uncorrected layer-1 errors will be handled by TCP.
D. When Reed-Solomon forward error correction is used, all errors are corrected at layer 1. The uncorrected state was present only until forward error correction algorithms corrected the errors.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 91
A DSL subscriber reports that the CPE modem untrains and retrains several times each hour, but not at regular intervals. The subscriber has a DMT modem operating on 10 kft of #26 cable (3 km of 0.4 mm cable). The provisioned downstream rate is 2 mbps, and the provisioned upstream rate is 256 kbps. When the modem retrains, the downstream DSL may be as low as 512 kbps.
Sometimes manually retraining the modem allows it to return to a 2 mbps line rate, and sometimes manually retraining the modem does not improve the DSL line rate. Which options would cause the intermittent train/untrain symptom as described? (multiple answer)
A. A telephone on the same phone line was installed without a microfilter. When the telephone handset is taken off-hook, the phone causes excessive attenuation of the DSL frequencies and the resulting high error rate results in a retrain. Because of the degraded signal levels while the phone is off-hook, the modem can not retrain at 2 mbps.
B. There is an interfering signal in the same cable. When the interfering signal is present, an excessive error rate results. The modem retrains at a lower line rate in order to recover an acceptable noise margin and error rate.
C. The noise margin was incorrectly set too high. Reducing the noise margin will correct the symptom.
D. ADSL DMT will not permit 2 mbps downstream rates at 10 kft of #26 cable (3 km of 0.4 mm cable). ADSL 2 megabit service will always be unreliable and intermittent on this cable length and wire size.
E. The DMT profile is using interleaved mode. Changing to fastpath will correct the symptom.
F. The ATM QoS is UBR, and the subscriber’s traffic is yielding to VBR or CBR traffic.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 92
IDSL and SDSL use what line coding scheme?
A. B8ZS
B. 2B1Q
C. QAM
D. CAP
E. DMT
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 93
Which modulation techniques are typical of ADSL, but not SDSL, SHDSL, or IDSL?
A. CAP and DMT
B. TC/PAM and DMT
C. CAP and TC/PAM
D. CAP and 2B1Q
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 94
The network associated with Router A’s Ethernet 0 port is designed to be publicly accessible. However, Router B’s Token Ring 0 network should be accessible only to hosts from Router A’s Ethernet 0 network. What access list for Router B would accomplish this?
A. access-list 99 permit 191.8.1.0 0.0.0.255access-list 99 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
B. access-list 103 permit 191.8.1.0 0.0.0.255access-list 103 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
C. access-list 88 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255access-list 88 permit 191.8.1.0 0.0.0.255
D. access-list 3 permit 191.8.1.0 255.255.255.0access-list 3 deny 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
E. access-list 99 permit 191.8.10.0 0.0.0.0access-list 99 deny 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 95
What Q.931 message cannot be received in response to sending a Q.931 SETUP message?
A. Alerting
B. Call Proceeding
C. Connect
D. USER Information
E. Progress
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 96
If a Dialer Profile exists in the local configuration of a router, what is true?
A. A virtual-access password is configured automatically.
B. A virtual-access interface will inherit all configurations from the dialer profile.
C. AAA parameters cannot be applied to an interface.
D. None of the above
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 97
To eliminate the need for adjacent routers on broadcast networks to form n(n-1)/2 adjacencies, IS-IS defines a pseudonode or Designated Intermediate System, DIS. All router on the broadcast medium form an adjacency with the DIS. The Backup DIS is called:
A. Redundant DIS
B. BDR
C. There is no concept of a backup DIS in IS-IS
D. Designated Redundant System
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 98
When using IS-IS for IP routing, Dual IS-IS defined by RFC 1195, what is true? (multiple answer)
A. It is necessary to configure a NSAP address.
B. It is not possible to perform both IP and CLNS routing wih the same process.
C. IP address and subnet information is carried in the TLV field on the L-1/L-1 LSPs.
D. Dual IS-IS does not support VLSM information.
Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 99
A router has the above routes listed in its routing table and receives a packet destined for 172.16.0.45. What will happen?
A. The router will not forward this packet, since it is destined for the 0 subnet.
B. The router will forward the packet through 172.31.116.65, since it has the lowest metric.
C. The router will forward the packet through 10.1.1.1.
D. The router will forward the packet through 172.31.116.65, since it has the lowest administrative distance.
E. The router will forward the packet through 192.168.1.4.
Correct Answer: C
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